Continuing from my earlier post on freewill http://vbala99.blogspot.com/2017/10/define-freewil.html.
Quote from Thinking Fast and Small by Daniel Kahnemann.
System 2 works on data that is retrieved from memory, in an automatic and involuntary operation of System 1. System 2 is therefore susceptible to the biasing influence of anchors that make some information easier to retrieve. Furthermore S2 (short for System 2) has no control over the effect and no knowledge of it.
A couple of days back my cousin had come over and brought a cake. She came with her twins. The girl had many teeth missing and I was teasing her.
My cousin said that her daughter had participated in some drama about Ravana and that there was Surpanaka in the drama. I said maybe her daughter cut Surpanaka's nose who in turn pulled her daughter's teeth out. My cousin burst out laughing.
Now
What is humor? It is making an association that is unexpected and funny. Or playing with words.
How does the association happen? From S2? Definitely not. You don't hear or see something and then wait for something funny to say - in which case it might take minutes or hours.
The funny thing has to come out immediately from S1. Suppose I had called my cousin later in the evening and told her "Remember you told me about your daughter, Ravana, Surpanaka..... Pulled her teeth out. ". Would that have been funny then?
Even a sense of humor is from S1. I am predicting it exists in N or F people only. Consequently STJ people are likely to have the least sense of humor.
Now is S2 (short for System 2) the same as free will? No, S2 is just a computational engine. it relies on S1 for data. And. as we saw in the quote earlier, S1 supplies data based on its own preference and not always fairly and correctly.
Who invokes S2? S1 yes.. Anyone else? I don't know yet.
S2 creates output after processing and this output sometimes is stored within S1. Hence subsequent S1 responses are to some extent affected by S2. But S2 itself is invoked only or largely by S1.
Where is freewill then? We have assumed that freewill does not reside in S1 since S1 is about intuitive and automatic reactions. When automatic subconscious reactions (Subconscious thought or emotion or whatever = STEM) determine our behavior, which we are not even aware of, we are not operating under freewill. S2 on the other hand is like a program - that computes and uses logic and hence time consuming and predictable. If something is very predictable - for example the software that we run on a computer produces the same output given the same input - would we say it has freewill? Would we say a computer program has freewill?
If something is very consistent and predictable, then the thing's output is always predetermined. The output can be known if the input is known (and of course the nature of the organism or software is a known one).
What is the definition of freewill then?
Something that is not consistent. And something that is not guided by STEW. What is it?
In a lighter vein, freewill resides only where logical thinking is absent - the feminine people.
If something is very consistent and predictable, then the thing's output is always predetermined. The output can be known if the input is known (and of course the nature of the organism or software is a known one).
What is the definition of freewill then?
Something that is not consistent. And something that is not guided by STEW. What is it?
In a lighter vein, freewill resides only where logical thinking is absent - the feminine people.
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